Archive for the ‘Exam Express’ Category

Oct
29

PassQuick ee0-301 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: ee0-301

Exam Name: Ncr Fsd Self-service Sales Certification Exam

VUE Code: ee0-301

vendor:Exam Express

Exam Language(s): English

Certification: Exam Express Certification practice test

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Sep
14

PassQuick ee0-302 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: ee0-302

Exam Name: Ncr Fsd Easypoint Atm Sales Certification Exam

VUE Code: ee0-302

vendor:Exam Express

Exam Language(s): English

Certification: Exam Express Certification practice test

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Sep
05

PassQuick ee0-011 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: ee0-011

Exam Name: Atg Certified Relationship Management Developer

VUE Code: ee0-011

vendor:Exam Express

Exam Language(s): English

Certification: Exam Express Certification practice test

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-011
Title : ATG Certified Relationship Management Developer

1. In which file is an application module’s required classes specified?
A. the META.INF file
B. the module’s .jar file
C. the application.xml file
D. the MANIFEST.MF file
E. the J2EEContainer.properties file
Answer: D

2. What is the purpose of the Message Registry?
A. map messages to components
B. register messages with the ACC
C. map JMSTypes to message bean classes
D. allow components to send and receive messages
Answer: C

3. Click the Exhibit button.
What is the output of this JSP?
A. a
B. b
C. a a
D. a b
E. b a
F. b b
Answer: C

4. Which two statements are true if a repository item type T has a property P that has the cascade="update" attribute set? (Choose two.)
A. Property P can be defined as either a repository item or a Collection of repository items.
B. The cascade="update" attribute is applied recursively to any properties in the items referenced by property P.
C. Anytime that a repository item of type T is updated, all corresponding items referenced by property P are updated.
D. Anytime that a repository item of type T is added to the repository, the corresponding items referenced by property P are also added to the repository.
Answer: AD

5. Why should you use serviceLocalParameter() instead of serviceParameter()?
A. to loop parameters
B. to limit the scope of parameters
C. to provide region-specific services
D. to service internationalized content
Answer: B

6. When using programmatic repository data access, each database operation is automatically wrapped in a transaction of which mode?
A. Required
B. Supports
C. Mandatory
D. RequiresNew
Answer: A

7. The type of a repository item property is defined using component-item-type only if the item’s data-type is a collection and _____.
A. its elements are Java primitive types
B. a one-to-many mapping is being described
C. its elements are references to components
D. its elements are references to other repository items
Answer: D

8. Click the Exhibit button.
File1.jsp is changed to replace the include directive with the dsp:include tag. Which two other changes should you make so that the behavior of the application remains the same? (Choose two.)
A. rename file2.jspf to file2.jsp
B. add a taglib directive to file2
C. add a dsp:importbean tag to file2
D. add a dsp:param tag to file1.jsp within the body of the dsp:include tag
Answer: BC

9. An online application requires that the value of a user’s security privilege be inherited from the privilege of its parent organization unless a value is specified on a per-user basis. Which repository feature provides the quickest and easiest implementation?
A. RQL filter
B. derived property
C. custom property descriptor
D. item-descriptor inheritance
Answer: B

10. What are two advantages of using Item Descriptor Inheritance over independent item descriptors in a repository definition? (Choose two.)
A. Duplicate data across different tables can be avoided.
B. The number of database tables is reduced, simplifying queries.
C. Item descriptors can inherit properties from multiple parent sources.
D. Queries for items with common attributes can be created more easily.
Answer: AD

11. The IsEmpty droplet renders the true open parameter when the value input parameter is _____. (Choose three.)
A. null
B. an Integer and Integer.intValue() == 0
C. an Object array and Object [].length == 0
D. a String and String.equals("") returns true
Answer: ACD

12. Which cache mode is most appropriate for repositories that are generally read-only, but updated infrequently?
A. locked
B. simple
C. disabled
D. distributed
Answer: D

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Sep
02

 
 
Exam : Exam Express EE0-425
Title : Packereer Packetshaper 6 Certification Exam

1. A PacketShaper is located at a branch office with a 256 Kbps WAN connection to the corporate office. A dedicated application server (IP address 192.168.10.10) resides at the corporate office and communicates via Port 1007 on the client side. Which two matching rules would classify this traffic? (Choose two.)
A. single matching rule with value of 1007 listed in the Inside Port(s) field
B. single matching rule with value of 192.168.10.10 listed in the Outside Name field
C. single matching rule with value of 192.168.10.10 listed in the Inside Address field
D. single matching rule with value of 192.168.10.10 listed in the Outside Address field
Answer: AD

2. Which method allows you to have a class that will capture just Citrix-ICA print traffic?
A. creating a Citrix class with criterion option set to "Printer" and the value of the criterion field set to the name of your printer
B. creating a Citrix class with criterion option set to "Priority" and the value of the criterion field set to the value of the priority tag in your print traffic
C. creating a Citrix class with criterion option set to "Client Name" and the value of the criterion field set to the name of the host requesting the print job
D. creating a Citrix class with criterion option set to "Published Application" and the value of the criterion field set to the name of the application issuing the print job
Answer: B

3. Why would you configure the Failover feature in Setup?
A. to detect if a Frame Relay PVC has failed and to adjust the link speed as appropriate
B. to detect if a site router’s primary link has failed and to adjust the link speed as appropriate
C. to detect if a site router has failed and to configure a new site router IP address and link speed
D. to detect if a WAN router has become unavailable and to adjust the total link speed as appropriate
Answer: B

4. Which three functions are allowed by PacketShaper’s command scheduling feature? (Choose three.)
A. back up measurement data to an FTP server nightly
B. download configuration changes from PolicyCenter hourly
C. disable Instant Messaging applications during classroom lecture times
D. increase priority for a specific class during the first week of every month
Answer: ACD

5. You want to create a Citrix class that will match traffic by client name and an HTTP class that will match traffic by user-agent and URL. Which command set can you use to determine what you should specify in your matching rules?
A. traffic flow
B. traffic history
C. class criteria
D. class capture-ids
Answer: C

6. A PacketShaper is located at a branch office with a 256 Kbps WAN connection to the corporate office. The administrator wants to classify traffic based on a series of port numbers (6005 through 6007) that the application server at the corporate office listens on. When creating the class, which two matching rule scenarios classify this traffic? (Choose two.)
A. single matching rule with value of 6005-6007 listed in the Inside Port(s) field
B. single matching rule with value of 6005-6007 listed in the Outside Port(s) field
C. single matching rule with value of 6005, 6006, 6007 listed in the Inside Port(s) field
D. three multiple matching rules with value of 6005, 6006, 6007 (separately for each of the three) listed in the Outside Port(s) field
Answer: BD

7. A custom traffic class has been created for a device on the network. The Inbound/Test class has been created with a criteria for the IP address of 10.3. This device uses HTTP, SMTP, and POP3. This device needs a different set of rules than the other devices on the network. The following traffic tree shows the placement of the class in the tree.
How do you make sure an HTTP flow to 10.1.1.3 is being classified in the Inbound/Test class?
A. set class to Exception
B. set class to Inheritable
C. turn on Top Talkers/Listeners
D. turn on traffic discovery within class
Answer: A

8. Which statement about hostlists is true?
A. You can re-use the same hostlist for multiple classes.
B. You cannot have DNS names and IP addresses in the same list.
C. You can copy a hostlist created under /Inbound to /Outbound to reuse it.
D. You cannot add DNS names to a list if you have not set the DNS server in Setup.
Answer: A

PassQuick ee0-425 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: ee0-425

Exam Name: Packereer Packetshaper 6 Certification

VUE Code: ee0-425

vendor:Exam Express

Exam Language(s): English

Certification: Exam Express Certification practice test

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Aug
31

PassQuick ee0-506 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: ee0-506

Exam Name: f5 firepass600 v5

VUE Code: ee0-506

vendor:Exam Express

Exam Language(s): English

Certification: Exam Express Certification practice test

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Aug
29

PassQuick ee0-200 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: ee0-200

Exam Name: Certified Landesk 8.5 Engineer Exam

VUE Code: ee0-200

vendor:Exam Express

Exam Language(s): English

Certification: Exam Express Certification practice test

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-200
Title : Certified Landesk 8.5 Engineer Exam

1. A multi-file MSI package needs to be distributed silently to your Windows 2000 clients. Which three actions must you take to accomplish this task? (Choose three.)
A. create a Transform file
B. stage the MSI files on a share
C. create a new Distribution package
D. select additional files in the Distribution package
E. add the /q switch to the Install / Uninstall options dialog
F. run setup.exe /A from the installation CD to create an administrative share point
Answer: BCD

2. You manage a static environment of 300 managed nodes. You distribute four to five software packages a week and want to reduce the amount of network traffic on your network. Which two actions will help reduce the amount of traffic on your network? (Choose two.)
A. using Targeted Multicast?to distribute packages
B. selecting the Use Multicast Domain Discovery option
C. compressing the package using WinZip before distribution
D. targeting only machines in the same subnet for a single task
E. selecting the Use Multicast Domain Discovery and Saving Results option
Answer: AE

3. An administrator runs a Software Distribution task that fails on 100 computers. You open the task and select Reschedule Failed Computers to rerun the job on these 100 computers. You then select Start Now and click OK to start the job. After starting the job nothing happens for several minutes. What are two possible causes for this? (Choose two.)
A. The database is offline.
B. "Wake Up Computers" is selected.
C. The Intel Scheduler service is not started.
D. You selected "Allow Users to Delay Tasks."
E. SDCLIENT.EXE is not installed on the client computers.
Answer: BC

4. You have just created a new task using the Manage Scripts tool that incorporates the SYSPREP process. By default. where is the newly created .INF file stored on the Core Server?
A. C:Program FilesIntelDTMscripts
B. C:Program FilesLANDeskOSDScripts
C. C:Program FilesLANDeskManagement Suitelandeskfiles
D. C:Program FilesIntelDTMManagement SuiteLDLogonPMScripts
Answer: C

5. You are planning a new LANDesk?client deployment to 500 Windows 98 workstations. These workstations are members of a single domain, but are physically located in three different buildings. Which deployment method provides the highest success rate with the least amount of administrative work?
A. manual configuration
B. login script-based deployment
C. push-based deployment using the Scheduler service
D. emailing a link to the Core Server’s LDLOGON share and detailed instructions for launching WSCFG32.EXE with the appropriate command line switches
Answer: B

6. Which format is used for importing and exporting the LDAPPL3.INI file from the Software Configuration console?
A. TXT
B. XML
C. CSV
D. HTML
Answer: B

7. Where is the Software Monitoring data stored on the client?
A. in the registry
B. in the invdelta.dat
C. in the ldclient directory
D. in the ldlogon directory
Answer: A

8. What is the default temporary install directory used during client setup?
A. %temp%
B. C:$ldcfg$
C. C:$ldclient$
D. %windir%temp
Answer: B

9. You created a Software Distribution task to install Adobe Photoshop 7 on 125 computers in your company. The job fails with the error "Unable to Access the Package." What is the likely cause of this error?
A. SDCLIENT.EXE is not installed on the clients.
B. The \servershare is not a null session share.
C. The users do not have access to the Web Server distribution folder.
D. The users do not have access to C:Program FilesLANDeskLDClientSDMCache directory.
Answer: B

10. You are planning the installation of LANDesk?Management Suite 8.5. Which four items are the minimum installation requirements that must be met before installing the LANDesk Management Suite 8.5 Core Server? (Choose four.)
A. MDAC 2.8+
B. Domain Controller
C. Internet Explorer 6.0+
D. Windows 2000 Server sp4
E. Microsoft SQL Server 2000
F. Internet Information Server 5.x+
Answer: ACDF

11. Which Column Set Configuration feature allows you to specify a precise primary key value for the selected software?
A. Edit
B. Value
C. Modify
D. Qualify
E. Columns
Answer: D

12. What can be done to limit the amount of bandwidth consumed by a Distribution Package?
A. In the Properties of the Delivery Method, increase the delay between packets
B. in the Properties of the Scheduled Task, increase the delay between packets
C. in the Properties of the Distribution Package, increase the delay between packets
D. in the Properties of the Deployment Package, increase the delay between packets
Answer: A

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Aug
28

 
 
Exam : Exam Express EE0-505
Title : F5 Fire Pass V5

1. Which two statements are true about the FirePass Quick Setup Wizard? (Choose two.)
A.The steps include setting up the license for the FirePass server.
B.The steps include setting up ssh access to the FirePass server.
C.The steps include changing the SuperUser userid and password for the FirePass server.
D.The steps include setting up a basic IP configuration including 1 FirePass NIC IP Address, a Gateway and a DNS server.
E.The steps include setting up a basic IP configuration including 3 FirePass NIC IP Addresses, a Gateway and a DNS server.
F.The steps include setting up a basic IP configuration including 3 FirePass NIC IP Addresses, a Gateway, a DNS server and a FQDN for the FirePass server.
Answer: CD

2. Which three types of applications are supported by the Legacy Host feature on FirePass? (Choose three.)
A.TN3270 access to mainframe
B.TN3270 ssh access to mainframe
C.TN5250 access to IBM AS/400 systems
D.Java client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
E.full featured ActiveX client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
Answer: ACD

3. Which three statements are true about the options available from the FirePass command line maintenance script? (Choose three.)
A.It can be used to shutdown and restart the FirePass Controller.
B.It can be used to reset the FirePass Controller to factory defaults.
C.It can be used to add Administrator userids to the FirePass Controller.
D.It can be used to reset any users password for the FirePass Controller.
E.It can be used for Network Diagnostics such as ping, netstat and IP Address settings.
Answer: ABE

4. What Answer contains the correct Source IP Address combination of the Network packet as it traverses the FirePass Server for an established Network Access connection given the following conditions?
NAPT – disabled,
Client machine IP Address – 216.34.94.17
VPN Pool Address range -104.21.47.0/24
FirePass Interface Addresses – External 110.121.32.10, Internal 205.229.151.10 -
The first Source IP Address listed is from client to FirePass, the second is from FirePass to Server.
A.216.34.94.17 — 216.34.94.17
B.216.34.94.17 — 104.21.47.12
C.104.21.47.12 — 104.21.47.12
D.216.34.94.17 — 205.229.151.10
E.104.21.47.12 — 205.229.151.10
F.205.229.151.10 — 205.229.151.10
Answer: B

5. Which two statements are true about initial access to the FirePass Controller? (Choose two.)
A.The Admin has limited command line access through a serial terminal using "maintenance" at the console login.
B.The Admin has Unix command line access through a serial terminal using root / default as the userid and password.
C.The Admin has web configuration access to https://10.10.1.99/admin/ using admin / admin as the userid and password.
D.The Admin has web configuration access to https://192.168.1.99/admin/ using admin / admin as the userid and password.
E.The Admin has Unix command line access through a keyboard and monitor using root / default as the userid and password.
Answer: AD

6. Which two statements are true about the different FirePass hardware models? (Choose two.)
A.The FirePass 1000 model will support 250 concurrent users on one box.
B.The FirePass 4100 model will support 250 concurrent users on one box.
C.The FirePass 600 model will support the Portal Access feature if a license is purchased.
D.The FirePass 1000 model will support 2500 concurrent users on two boxes in a Cluster configuration.
E.The FirePass 4100 model will support 2500 concurrent users on two boxes in a Cluster configuration.
Answer: BE

7. A backup or restore of the FirePass configuration can be accomplished in which two ways? (Choose two.)
A.A backup snapshot file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.
B.A backup snapshot file may be saved to the local PC using the command line maintenance script.
C.A backup configuration file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.
D.A backup configuration file may be saved to the local PC using the web configuration Admin console.
E.A backup snapshot file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the command line maintenance script.
F.A backup configuration file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the web configuration Admin console.
Answer: DE

8. Which three statements are true about FirePass Administrators? (Choose three.)
A.Administrator logons can be authenticated externally to FirePass.
B.All FirePass Administrators can access the FirePass user webtop.
C.Other FirePass users setup as Administrators can change the SuperUser password.
D.FirePass Administrators with the correct rights can change any FirePass users password.
E.FirePass Administrators with the correct rights can only change FirePass internally authenticated users’ passwords.
Answer: ABE

PassQuick ee0-505 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: ee0-505

Exam Name: F5 Fire Pass V5

VUE Code: ee0-505

vendor:Exam Express

Exam Language(s): English

Certification: Exam Express Certification practice test

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Aug
16

PassQuick ee0-050 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: ee0-050

Exam Name: Inerwoven Teamsite 6 Technical Consultant

VUE Code: ee0-050

vendor:Exam Express

Exam Language(s): English

Certification: Exam Express Certification practice test

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Exam Express ee0-050 Exam

Aug
05

 
 
Exam : Exam Express EE0-02
Title : Atg commerce certification exam

1. What are two ways to display items in an order in a JSP? (Choose two.)
A. iterate through the CartModifierFormHandler.productIds property
B. iterate through the CartModifierFormHandler.order.commerceItems property
C. iterate through the CartModifierFormHandler.order.ShippingGroups property and then iterate through the
ShippingGroup.CommerceItems property
D. iterate through the CartModifierFormHandler.order.ShippingGroups property and then iterate through the
ShippingGroup.CommerceItemRelationships property
Answer: BD

2. In which two cases is it recommended that you create repository item sub-types or modify the sku repository item rather than use dynamicAttributes? (Choose two.)
A. when adding multiple attributes to a sku
B. when using an attribute represented by a number
C. when defining an attribute that can be different for all SKUs
D. when defining an attribute that is specific to a small subset of SKUs
Answer: AD

3. Which two steps are necessary to add a new shipping method? (Choose two.)
A. create a component of type atg.commerce.pricing.ShippingMethod
B. create a component of type atg.commerce.pricing.FixedPriceShippingCalculator
C. add the new shipping method component to the ShippingPricingEngine component’s preCalculator property
D. add the new shipping method component to the ShippingPricingEngine component’s shippingMethod property
Answer: BC

4. What are three main tasks in the PaymentGroupFormHandler? (Choose three.)
A. create a new PaymentGroup for use in a user’s current Order
B. split extra CommerceIdentifierPaymentInfo objects by amount
C. handle applying CommerceIdentifierPaymentInfo associations to the current Order
D. specify a default PaymentGroup to be used for a CommerceIdentifier that is not explicitly assigned to a PaymentGroup
Answer: BCD

5. When would you use the CatalogItemLookupDroplet instead of the ItemLookupDroplet to look up items in a catalog repository?
A. when you want to search for an item on a gift list
B. when you want to search more than one repository for an item
C. when you want to search for an item only from the current user’s catalog
D. when you want to search for a list of possible items that match a specific criteria
Answer: C

6. What are two functions of the CartModifierFormHandler? (Choose two.)
A. reprices the Order
B. adds items to an Order
C. schedules the Order for future fulfillment
D. retrieves the list of payment groups associated with the Order
Answer: AB

7. What should you do to prevent errors during submission in the checkout caused by session invalidation?
A. You set the sessionExpirationURL property of the form handler to redirect the user to an appropriate page after submission.
B. You ensure that the Profile.securityStatus is not anonymous before rendering the form and if it is anonymous, redirect the user to an
appropriate page.
C. You create a servlet that will check the SessionManager.validSessions property and ensure this session is valid when the form is
displayed. If session is invalid, you redirect the user to an appropriate page.
D. You check the creationTime of the user’s session and ensure that the difference subtracted from current time is not greater than the
SessionManager.sessionInvalidationTime on the page. If it is longer than the sessionInvalidationTime, you redirect the user to an
appropriate page.
Answer: A

8. Which two statements about the functions of the ShippingGroupFormHandler are true? (Choose two.)
A. It allows you to split shipping by line item.
B. It allows you to split shipping by payment group.
C. It contains a list of CommerceItemShippingInfo objects.
D. It loads the ShippingGroupMapContainer with the authorized shipping groups for the current user.
Answer: AC

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Exam Number/Code: ee0-021

Exam Name: Atg Commerce Certification Exam

VUE Code: ee0-021

vendor:Exam Express

Exam Language(s): English

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Jul
30

PassQuick ee1-001 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: ee1-001

Exam Name: omnimark certified developer

VUE Code: ee1-001

vendor:Exam Express

Exam Language(s): English

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Jul
23

PassQuick EE0-515 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: EE0-515

Exam Name: FirePass v6

VUE Code: EE0-515

vendor:Exam Express

Exam Language(s): English

Certification: Exam Express Certification practice test

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-515
Title : FirePass v6

1. Which three types of applications are supported by the Application Access Legacy Host feature on FirePass? (Choose three.)
A. TN3270 access to mainframe
B. TN3270 ssh access to mainframe
C. TN5250 access to IBM AS/400 systems (System i)
D. Java client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
E. full featured ActiveX client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
Answer: A C D

2. If a working Active / Standby pair of FirePass Controllers has been configured correctly for Failover, which observation by itself would allow the Admin to tell which FirePass box is is the Active member of the pair?
A. https://<FirePass virtual IP Address>/admin/ / Welcome screen says "In Failover Active Mode".
B. https://<FirePass physical IP Address>/admin/ / Welcome screen says "In Failover Active Mode".
C. https://<FirePass virtual IP Address>/admin/ / Current Settings screen option Current Failover Status set to "Active".
D. https://<FirePass physical IP Address>/admin/ / Current Settings screen option Current Failover Status set to "Active".
Answer: B

3. Which statement is true about the Failover Synchronization process on FirePass?
A. The configuration is synched from Active to Standby automatically.
B. The configuration is synched from Standby to Active automatically.
C. The Synchronization process can be configured using a virtual IP Address.
D. The configuration is synched from Active to Standby manually by an Administrator.
E. The configuration is synched from Standby to Active manually by an Administrator.
Answer: A

4. Based on the pre-logon sequence in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. If the file c:logon.txt exists, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be presented with a logon screen.
B. If the file c:logon.txt exists, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be logged into the FirePass controller.
C. If the file c:logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is running, the client will be presented with a logon screen.
D. If the file c:logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be presented with a logon screen.
E. If the file c:logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is running, the client will be logged into the FirePass controller.
F. If the file c:logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be logged into the FirePass controller.
Answer: A C

5. A backup or restore of the FirePass configuration can be accomplished in which way?
A. A backup file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.
B. A backup file may be saved to a local PC using the web configuration Admin console.
C. A backup file may be saved to the local PC using the command line "maintenance" script.
D. A backup file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the web configuration Admin console.
E. A backup file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the command line "maintenance" script.
Answer: B

6. Which two sequences include the "required" steps, in the correct order, for configuring Failover on the FirePass Controller? (Choose two.) 1.restart First (Primary) 2.restart Second (Secondary) 3.enable Failover option on First 4.enable Failover option on Second 5.configure virtual IP Address on First 6. configure virtual IP Address on Second
A. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2, 6
B. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 6
C. 3, 1, 5, 1, 4, 2, 6, 2
D. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 2
E. 5, 1, 3, 1, 6, 2, 4, 2
F. 5, 1, 6, 2, 3, 1, 4, 2
Answer: C D

7. Which statement is true for users in a group when the "Show administrator-defined favorites only" option is enabled?
A. They cannot configure their own user favorites.
B. They only see links setup by the FirePass Admin and can access other sites with sufficient privileges.
C. They see links setup by the FirePass Admin and links to web servers on the same network as FirePass.
D. They only see links setup by the FirePass Admin but can access other sites by typing in the web-site address.
Answer: A

8. Which is a valid way to tell whether the Admin is connected to the Master as opposed to the Slave Node in a cluster of FirePass Controllers?
A. Admin console / Clustering option is absent.
B. Admin console / Clustering option is present.
C. Admin console / Portal Access option is present.
D. Admin console / Network Access option is present.
Answer: C

9. Which statement is FALSE about an EndPoint security Protected Configuration?
A. All resources are protected by at least one pre-logon check
B. Different resources can be protected by different pre-logon checks
C. Resources can be required to pass more than one pre-logon check
D. Within one pre-logon sequence some checks can be used to protect resources and other checks can restrict access to the logon screen
Answer: A

10. Which statement is true regarding Portal Access: Access Control Lists?
A. ACL’s can be applied to the Master Group and Favorites.
B. ACL’s can prevent favorites from being viewable from the Webtop.
C. ACL’s require that an Active X component be downloaded and installed automatically when the user clicks on a favorite.
D. Un-checking "show administrator defined favorites only" on the Master Group settings page will allow the user to browse to any URL regardless of the configured ACL’s.
Answer: A

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Jul
20

 
 
Exam : Exam Express EE0-512
Title : Exam Express(r) F5-big-ip v9 Local Traffic Management Advanced

1. Which statement is true concerning packet filters?
A.Filters cannot prevent application viruses.
B.Filters cannot prevent the BIG-IP synching process from taking place.
C.The order of filters does not affect which traffic is accepted or denied.
D.In addition to administrator-created filters, there always exists a "deny all" filter that processes traffic last.
Answer: A

2. A site wishes to use an external monitor. Other than what is coded in the monitor script, what information must be configured on the BIG-IP for the monitor to be functional? (Choose two.)
A.BIG-IP must know the name of the program.
B.BIG-IP must know which functions the program is going to test.
C.BIG-IP must know the IP addresses of the devices that will be tested.
D.BIG-IP must know which node or member the results are to be applied to.
E.BIG-IP must know all services that are running on the system to be tested.
Answer: AD

3. If a self-IP port lockdown is set to "allow default", which three ports will accept administrative traffic? (Choose three.)
A.SSH
B.DNS
C.HTTP
D.SMTP
E.HTTPS
Answer: ABE

4. Which file contains the allowed IP addresses for SSH access?
A./etc/hosts.deny
B./etc/sshd_allow
C./etc/hosts.allow
D./etc/sshd_secure
Answer: C

5. As a part of the Setup Utility, the administrator sets the host name for the BIG-IP. What would be the result if the two systems in a redundant pair were set to the same host name?
A.Host names do not matter in redundant pair communication.
B.In a redundant pair, the two systems will always have the same host name. The parameter is synchronized between the systems.
C.The first time the systems are synchronized the receiving system will be assigned the same self-IP addresses as the source system.
D.When the administrator attempts to access the configuration utility using the host name, they will always connect to the active system.
Answer: C

6. If a self-IP’s port lockdown is set to "allow 443", which statement describes allowed communication to that address?
A.Access is available to the Configuration Utility.
B.Serial console access is prevented since only port 443 access is allowed.
C.Access may be available via SSH dependent upon the /etc/host.allow settings.
D.The partner BIG-IP will be able to synchronize and mirror connection and persistence information.
Answer: A

7. Click the Exhibit button.
Given the network in the exhibit and the following partial configuration. If a packet arrived on the BIG-IP with a source IP address of 200.10.10.10 and a destination IP address of 150.10.10.75, what would the source IP address of the associated packet be when it arrived on the chosen member of the web_pool?
A.10.10.1.100
B.150.10.10.15
C.200.10.10.10
D.It would be one of the three IP addresses in the web_pool.
E.It would be the floating self-IP address on the internal VLAN of the BIG-IP.
F.There is insufficient information to determine what the source address would be.
Answer: A

8. A BIG-IP has a virtual server at 150.150.10.10:80 that is associated with a load-balancing pool with a single pool member: 10.10.10.1:80. This BIG-IP also has a SNAT at 150.150.10.11 set for all addresses. All other settings are at their default states. If a client with the IP address 200.200.1.1 sends a request to the virtual server, what are the source and destination addresses when the associated packet is sent to the pool member?
A.Source: 200.200.1.1 Destination: 10.10.10.1
B.Source: 150.150.10.11 Destination: 10.10.10.1
C.Source: 200.200.1.1 Destination: 150.150.10.10
D.Source: 150.150.10.11 Destination: 150.150.10.10
Answer: B

PassQuick ee0-512 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: ee0-512

Exam Name: f5-big-ip v9 local traffic management advanced

VUE Code: ee0-512

vendor:Exam Express

Exam Language(s): English

Certification: Exam Express Certification practice test

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Jul
15

PassQuick ee0-505 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: ee0-505

Exam Name: F5 Fire Pass V5

VUE Code: ee0-505

vendor:Exam Express

Exam Language(s): English

Certification: Exam Express Certification practice test

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-505
Title : F5 Fire Pass V5

1. Which two statements are true about the different FirePass hardware models? (Choose two.)
A.The FirePass 1000 model will support 250 concurrent users on one box.
B.The FirePass 4100 model will support 250 concurrent users on one box.
C.The FirePass 600 model will support the Portal Access feature if a license is purchased.
D.The FirePass 1000 model will support 2500 concurrent users on two boxes in a Cluster configuration.
E.The FirePass 4100 model will support 2500 concurrent users on two boxes in a Cluster configuration.
Answer: BE

2. Which three statements are true about FirePass Administrators? (Choose three.)
A.Administrator logons can be authenticated externally to FirePass.
B.All FirePass Administrators can access the FirePass user webtop.
C.Other FirePass users setup as Administrators can change the SuperUser password.
D.FirePass Administrators with the correct rights can change any FirePass users password.
E.FirePass Administrators with the correct rights can only change FirePass internally authenticated users’ passwords.
Answer: ABE

3. What Answer contains the correct Source IP Address combination of the Network packet as it traverses the FirePass Server for an established Network Access connection given the following conditions?
NAPT – disabled,
Client machine IP Address – 216.34.94.17
VPN Pool Address range -104.21.47.0/24
FirePass Interface Addresses – External 110.121.32.10, Internal 205.229.151.10 -
The first Source IP Address listed is from client to FirePass, the second is from FirePass to Server.
A.216.34.94.17 — 216.34.94.17
B.216.34.94.17 — 104.21.47.12
C.104.21.47.12 — 104.21.47.12
D.216.34.94.17 — 205.229.151.10
E.104.21.47.12 — 205.229.151.10
F.205.229.151.10 — 205.229.151.10
Answer: B

4. Which two statements are true about the FirePass Quick Setup Wizard? (Choose two.)
A.The steps include setting up the license for the FirePass server.
B.The steps include setting up ssh access to the FirePass server.
C.The steps include changing the SuperUser userid and password for the FirePass server.
D.The steps include setting up a basic IP configuration including 1 FirePass NIC IP Address, a Gateway and a DNS server.
E.The steps include setting up a basic IP configuration including 3 FirePass NIC IP Addresses, a Gateway and a DNS server.
F.The steps include setting up a basic IP configuration including 3 FirePass NIC IP Addresses, a Gateway, a DNS server and a FQDN for the FirePass server.
Answer: CD

5. Which of the following can not be configured during the FirePass Quick Setup Wizard at v5.4.1 or later?
A.FirePass IP Address
B.Administrator password
C.DNS Server IP Address
D.VLAN interface tag value
E.SSL VPN Network Access connection
F.Self-Signed SSL certificate configuration
Answer: D

6. Which three statements are true about the options available from the FirePass command line maintenance script? (Choose three.)
A.It can be used to shutdown and restart the FirePass Controller.
B.It can be used to reset the FirePass Controller to factory defaults.
C.It can be used to add Administrator userids to the FirePass Controller.
D.It can be used to reset any users password for the FirePass Controller.
E.It can be used for Network Diagnostics such as ping, netstat and IP Address settings.
Answer: ABE

7. A backup or restore of the FirePass configuration can be accomplished in which two ways? (Choose two.)
A.A backup snapshot file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.
B.A backup snapshot file may be saved to the local PC using the command line maintenance script.
C.A backup configuration file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.
D.A backup configuration file may be saved to the local PC using the web configuration Admin console.
E.A backup snapshot file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the command line maintenance script.
F.A backup configuration file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the web configuration Admin console.
Answer: DE

8. Which two statements are true about initial access to the FirePass Controller? (Choose two.)
A.The Admin has limited command line access through a serial terminal using "maintenance" at the console login.
B.The Admin has Unix command line access through a serial terminal using root / default as the userid and password.
C.The Admin has web configuration access to https://10.10.1.99/admin/ using admin / admin as the userid and password.
D.The Admin has web configuration access to https://192.168.1.99/admin/ using admin / admin as the userid and password.
E.The Admin has Unix command line access through a keyboard and monitor using root / default as the userid and password.
Answer: AD

9. Which three types of applications are supported by the Legacy Host feature on FirePass? (Choose three.)
A.TN3270 access to mainframe
B.TN3270 ssh access to mainframe
C.TN5250 access to IBM AS/400 systems
D.Java client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
E.full featured ActiveX client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host
Answer: ACD

10. How many concurrent users can a FirePass Controller Support? (Choose three.)
A.A standalone FirePass 1000 can support 100 users.
B.A standalone FirePass 1000 can support 250 users.
C.A standalone FirePass 4100 can support 1000 users.
D.A standalone FirePass 4100 can support 2500 users.
E.Using the FirePass clustering feature, a cluster of FirePass 1000’s can support 2500 users.
F.Using the FirePass clustering feature, a cluster of FirePass 4100’s can support 10000 users.
Answer: ACF

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Jul
12

PassQuick ee0-502 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: ee0-502

Exam Name: F5 Big-Ip V4 Advanced Topics Exam

VUE Code: ee0-502

vendor:Exam Express

Exam Language(s): English

Certification: Exam Express Certification practice test

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-502
Title : F5 Big-Ip V4 Advanced Topics Exam

1. What is the result of entering the following command? bigpipe save
A. The contents of /config/bigip.conf are displayed on the monitor.
B. The current version (in memory) of the BIG-IP Systems’s configuration is written to /etc/bigip.conf.
C. The current version (in memory) of the BIG-IP System’s configuration is written to /config/bigip.conf.
D. The contents of /config/bigip.conf are made the current version (in memory) of the BIG-IP System’s configuration.
Answer: C

2. What happens when a NAT has the "internal" VLAN disabled?
A. There is no effect.
B. Traffic arriving on other VLANs cannot be processed by the NAT.
C. Only traffic arriving on the "internal" VLAN is processed by the NAT.
D. The NAT only functions properly if both the client and servers are on VLANs other than the "internal" VLAN.
Answer: D

3. What is the result of entering the following command? bigpipe pool TestPool { lb_method round_robin member 10.10.1.1:80 member 10.10.1.2:80}
A. A new pool is available for association with any Virtual Server.
B. The last Virtual Server defined is associated with the new pool, TestPool.
C. The /config/bigip.conf file is updated to include a definition for the pool named TestPool.
D. Requests sent to this BIG-IP System with a destination port of 80 are load balanced between the members of TestPool.
Answer: A

4. By default, how frequently are log files rotated?
A. hourly
B. daily
C. weekly
D. There is no default; the administrator sets the frequency.
Answer: B

5. What is required to implement VIP Bounceback configurations?
A. a Network Virtual Server
B. Clients and nodes must be located on separate VLANs.
C. The Virtual Server address must be configured on each node’s loopback adapter.
D. A return path must be enforced through the BIG-IP System for the nodes’ responses to clients.
Answer: D

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Jul
12

PassQuick EE0-411 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: EE0-411

Exam Name: Voice XMl Application Developer Exam

VUE Code: EE0-411

vendor:Exam Express

Exam Language(s): English

Certification: Exam Express Certification practice test

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-411
Title : VoiceXML Application Developer Exam

1. Which two code fragments write " rose " to a log? (Choose two.)
A. <log>rose</log>
B. <log name="rose">rose</log>
C. <var name="var1" expr="’rose’"/> <log><value expr="rose"/></log>
D. <var name="var1" expr="’rose’"/> <log><value expr="var1"/></log>
Answer: AD

2. Which SSML element allows you to specify the speed with which rendered output is played?
A. the<prompt> element, using the rate attribute
B. the <prosody>element, using the rate attribute
C. the <say-as> element, using the duration attribute
D. the<emphasis> element, using the duration attribute
Answer: B

3. Given the following VoiceXML code segment:
What is the value of counter variable when this VoiceXML is executed?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
Answer: D

4. The _____ attribute is used to identify the root document of a VoiceXML application.
A. root
B. main
C. parent
D. application
Answer: D

5. Given the following VoiceXML code:
The objective of this code is to ask callers to enter their PIN. Which line must be changed for this code to achieve its objective?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 11
D. 15
Answer: B

6. Given the following code fragment:
<field name="day_of_month" type="number>
<prompt>What day of the month?</prompt>
[ _________ ]
</field>
Which code fragment should be inserted in the blank to ensure that the day_of_month is less than or equal to 31 and, if it is not, then require the user to reenter it .
A. picture
8. Given the following VoiceXML code segment:
What is the value of counter variable when this VoiceXML is executed?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
Answer: D

7. Given the following VoiceXML code:
Which line, replaced at line 3, causes the message "in custom event" to be played for each and every event?
A. <catch>
B. <catch event="*">
C. <catch event="all">
D. <catch events="all">
Answer: A

8. Which grammar rule recognizes these phrases?
Isaac Levi
Isaac the kid Levi
Isaac my friend Levi
Isaac Delbert Levi
Mao Yonghang
Mao the kid Yonghang
Mao my friend Yonghang
Mao Delbert Yonghang
A. picture
6. Which VoiceXML element can be used to transfer execution from one VoiceXML document to the other and return to the first VoiceXML document after the execution of the second VoiceXML document is completed?
A. <call>
B. <goto>
C. <submit>
D. <subdialog>
E. <function>
Answer: D

9. Which attribute of the break element can be used to specify a pause in VoiceXML 2.0?
A. time
B. pause
C. msecs
D. sleep
Answer: A

10. Which VoiceXML element can be used to transfer execution from one VoiceXML document to the other and return to the first VoiceXML document after the execution of the second VoiceXML document is completed?
A. <call>
B. <goto>
C. <submit>
D. <subdialog>
E. <function>
Answer: D

11. What happens when the user partially answers the initial prompt of a mixed initiative dialog?
A. The user is prompted for each field that the user did not supply.
B. The prompt is repeated again so the user may completely answer.
C. The user is transferred to the next &lt;dialog&gt; element in the application.
D. The user is prompted for each and every field in the mixed initiative form.
Answer: A

12. Given the following mixed initiative <form> :
Which code fragment should be placed in the empty brackets to allow the user to respond appropriately to the prompt
D.
A. <ruleref uri = "#departure_city"/>
B. <ruleref uri = "#destination_city"/>
C. <ruleref uri = "#departure_city destination_city"/>
D. picture
Answer: D

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Jul
05

 
 
Exam : Exam Express EE0-411
Title : VoiceXML Application Developer Exam

1. Given the following code fragment:
<field name="day_of_month" type="number>
<prompt>What day of the month?</prompt>
[ _________ ]
</field>
Which code fragment should be inserted in the blank to ensure that the day_of_month is less than or equal to 31 and, if it is not, then require the user to reenter it .
A. picture
8. Given the following VoiceXML code segment:
What is the value of counter variable when this VoiceXML is executed?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
Answer: D

2. Which two code fragments write " rose " to a log? (Choose two.)
A. <log>rose</log>
B. <log name="rose">rose</log>
C. <var name="var1" expr="’rose’"/> <log><value expr="rose"/></log>
D. <var name="var1" expr="’rose’"/> <log><value expr="var1"/></log>
Answer: AD

3. Given the following VoiceXML code:
The objective of this code is to ask callers to enter their PIN. Which line must be changed for this code to achieve its objective?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 11
D. 15
Answer: B

4. Given the following VoiceXML code segment:
What is the value of counter variable when this VoiceXML is executed?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
Answer: D

5. Which VoiceXML element can be used to transfer execution from one VoiceXML document to the other and return to the first VoiceXML document after the execution of the second VoiceXML document is completed?
A. <call>
B. <goto>
C. <submit>
D. <subdialog>
E. <function>
Answer: D

6. The _____ attribute is used to identify the root document of a VoiceXML application.
A. root
B. main
C. parent
D. application
Answer: D

7. Which grammar rule recognizes these phrases?
Isaac Levi
Isaac the kid Levi
Isaac my friend Levi
Isaac Delbert Levi
Mao Yonghang
Mao the kid Yonghang
Mao my friend Yonghang
Mao Delbert Yonghang
A. picture
6. Which VoiceXML element can be used to transfer execution from one VoiceXML document to the other and return to the first VoiceXML document after the execution of the second VoiceXML document is completed?
A. <call>
B. <goto>
C. <submit>
D. <subdialog>
E. <function>
Answer: D

8. Which SSML element allows you to specify the speed with which rendered output is played?
A. the<prompt> element, using the rate attribute
B. the <prosody>element, using the rate attribute
C. the <say-as> element, using the duration attribute
D. the<emphasis> element, using the duration attribute
Answer: B

PassQuick EE0-411 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: EE0-411

Exam Name: Voice XMl Application Developer Exam

VUE Code: EE0-411

vendor:Exam Express

Exam Language(s): English

Certification: Exam Express Certification practice test

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Exam Express EE0-411 Exam

Jul
03

 
 
Exam : Exam Express EE0-511
Title : Exam Express(r) F5 big-ip v9 Local Traffic Management

1. A site has six members in a pool. Three of the servers are new and have more memory and a faster processor than the others. Assuming all other factors are equal and traffic should be sent to all members, which two load-balancing methods are appropriate? (Choose two.)
A.Priority
B.Observed
C.Round Robin
D.Ratio Member
Answer: BD

2. Which statement is true regarding fail-over?
A.Hardware fail-over is disabled by default.
B.Hardware fail-over can be used in conjunction with network failover.
C.If the hardware fail-over cable is disconnected, both BIG-IP devices will always assume the active role.
D.By default, hardware fail-over detects voltage across the fail-over cable and monitors traffic across the internal VLAN.
Answer: B

3. Which two statements are true concerning differences between BIG-IP platforms? (Choose two.)
A.The 1500 hosts more ports than the 3400.
B.All F5 switch ports are tri-speed; 10, 100 or 1000 Mbps.
C.All BIG-IP platforms use both an ASIC and CPU(s) to process traffic.
D.The 1500 and 3400 are in a 1U chassis while the 6400 is in a 2U chassis.
E.The 1500, 3400 and 6400 have greater SSL capabilities after the initial SSL handshake than the 1000, 2400, and 5100.
Answer: DE

4. When initially configuring the BIG-IP System using the config tool, which three parameters can be set? (Choose three.)
A.the netmask of the management port
B.the host name of the management port
C.the IP address of the management port
D.the default route for the management port
E.the port lockdown of the management port
Answer: ACD

5. The current status of a given pool is offline (red). Which condition could explain that state? Assume the descriptions below include all monitors assigned for each scenario.
A.Neither the pool nor it’s members or nodes has any monitor assigned.
B.The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and all of the pool’s members have failed the monitor’s test.
C.The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and some of the pool’s members have failed the monitor’s test.
D.A system-wide monitor has tested all nodes successfully, but the pool’s members have no specific monitor assigned to them.
Answer: B

6. Which two profile types would be required with a virtual server so that cookie persistence is enabled? (Choose two.)
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.HTTP
D.WWW
E.source address persistence
Answer: AC

7. Which two F5 switch platforms always have both a compact flash and a hard drive? (Choose two.)
A.1000
B.1500
C.2400
D.3400
E.5100
F.6400
Answer: DF

8. What is the default IP address on a BIG-IP’s management port?
A.192.168.1.245/16
B.192.168.1.245/24
C.192.168.245.245/16
D.192.168.245.245/24
Answer: B

PassQuick ee0-511 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: ee0-511

Exam Name: f5 big-ip v9 local traffic management

VUE Code: ee0-511

vendor:Exam Express

Exam Language(s): English

Certification: Exam Express Certification practice test

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Exam Express ee0-511 Exam

Jun
25

 
 
Exam : Exam Express EE0-011
Title : ATG Certified Relationship Management Developer

1. In which file is an application module’s required classes specified?
A. the META.INF file
B. the module’s .jar file
C. the application.xml file
D. the MANIFEST.MF file
E. the J2EEContainer.properties file
Answer: D

2. The type of a repository item property is defined using component-item-type only if the item’s data-type is a collection and _____.
A. its elements are Java primitive types
B. a one-to-many mapping is being described
C. its elements are references to components
D. its elements are references to other repository items
Answer: D

3. Why should you use serviceLocalParameter() instead of serviceParameter()?
A. to loop parameters
B. to limit the scope of parameters
C. to provide region-specific services
D. to service internationalized content
Answer: B

4. What are two advantages of using Item Descriptor Inheritance over independent item descriptors in a repository definition? (Choose two.)
A. Duplicate data across different tables can be avoided.
B. The number of database tables is reduced, simplifying queries.
C. Item descriptors can inherit properties from multiple parent sources.
D. Queries for items with common attributes can be created more easily.
Answer: AD

5. Which two statements are true if a repository item type T has a property P that has the cascade="update" attribute set? (Choose two.)
A. Property P can be defined as either a repository item or a Collection of repository items.
B. The cascade="update" attribute is applied recursively to any properties in the items referenced by property P.
C. Anytime that a repository item of type T is updated, all corresponding items referenced by property P are updated.
D. Anytime that a repository item of type T is added to the repository, the corresponding items referenced by property P are also added to the repository.
Answer: AD

6. Which cache mode is most appropriate for repositories that are generally read-only, but updated infrequently?
A. locked
B. simple
C. disabled
D. distributed
Answer: D

7. An online application requires that the value of a user’s security privilege be inherited from the privilege of its parent organization unless a value is specified on a per-user basis. Which repository feature provides the quickest and easiest implementation?
A. RQL filter
B. derived property
C. custom property descriptor
D. item-descriptor inheritance
Answer: B

8. Click the Exhibit button.
File1.jsp is changed to replace the include directive with the dsp:include tag. Which two other changes should you make so that the behavior of the application remains the same? (Choose two.)
A. rename file2.jspf to file2.jsp
B. add a taglib directive to file2
C. add a dsp:importbean tag to file2
D. add a dsp:param tag to file1.jsp within the body of the dsp:include tag
Answer: BC

PassQuick ee0-011 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: ee0-011

Exam Name: Atg Certified Relationship Management Developer

VUE Code: ee0-011

vendor:Exam Express

Exam Language(s): English

Certification: Exam Express Certification practice test

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Exam Express ee0-011 Exam

Jun
11

 
 
Exam : Exam Express EE0-513
Title : Exam Express(r) F5 BIG-IP GTM v9.x

1. If the config tool is complete, which three access methods are available by default for GTM administration and configuration on 520/540 platforms? (Choose three.)
A.network access via http
B.network access via https
C.network access via telnet
D.direct access via serial port
E.direct access via keyboard and monitor
Answer: BDE

2. Which three parameters can be specified within the Setup Utility? (Choose three.)
A.password of the "root" user
B.IP address of an NTP server
C.IP address of an initial Wide-IP
D.IP address restrictions for ssh access
E.all necessary administrative IP addresses (including floating addresses)
Answer: ADE

3. Which two daemons only run once the entire license process has been completed? (Choose two.)
A.zrd
B.tmm
C.ntpd
D.gtmd
Answer: AD

4. When initially configuring the GTM System using the config tool, which two parameters can be set? (Choose two.)
A.System hostname
B.IP Address of management port
C.IP Address of the external VLAN
D.Default route for management port
E.Port lockdown of management port
Answer: BD

5. What must be sent to the license server to generate a new license?
A.the system’s dossier
B.the system’s base license
C.the system’s serial number
D.the system’s purchase order number
Answer: A

6. Which two ports must be enabled to establish communication between GTM Systems and other BIG-IP Systems? (Choose two.)
A.22
B.53
C.443
D.4353
E.4354
Answer: AD

7. After licensing the GTM System, what must be performed to complete activation?
A.reboot of system
B.manual restart of gtmd
C.manual restart of tmm
D.enter the command bigstart restart
Answer: A

8. When users are created, which three access levels can be granted through the GTM Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)
A.Root
B.Guest
C.Operator
D.Administrator
E.CLI + Web Read Only
Answer: BCD

PassQuick EE0-513 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: EE0-513

Exam Name: F5 BIG-IP GTM v9.x

VUE Code: EE0-513

vendor:Exam Express

Exam Language(s): English

Certification: Exam Express Certification practice test

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Exam Express EE0-513 Exam

May
19

PassQuick ee0-065 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: ee0-065

Exam Name: Interwoven TeamSite 6.5 Technical Consultant

VUE Code: ee0-065

vendor:Exam Express

Exam Language(s): English

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Download Exam Express ee0-065 Pdf Exam

 
 
Exam : Exam Express EE0-065
Title : Interwoven TeamSite 6.5 Technical Consultant

1. During a Windows TeamSite installation, which user is automatically added to the master.uid file?
A. The TeamSite Administrator
B. SYSTEM
C. The local user logged on to TeamSite
D. The Domain Administrator
E. TSIMP_TEAMSITE
Answer: B

2. In a Windows 2000 environment, how do you limit the number of domains available to your TeamSite server?
A. Put the TeamSite server in a different domain.
B. Ensure the limit_domains tag is in the iw.local.cfg file.
C. Make the TeamSite server the Primary Domain Controller.
D. Use the domain_list tag in iw.cfg.
E. Make the TeamSite server a stand alone server.
Answer: D

3. How does a TeamSite user change her TeamSite password?
A. The TeamSite user can use the Change Password menu item in ContentCenter to change her TeamSite password.
B. The TeamSite user can use the Preferences option on the VisualPreview tool bar to change her TeamSite password.
C. The TeamSite user can use the command-line tool (CLT) iwpasswd to change her TeamSite password.
D. The TeamSite user can change the operating systempassword, which changes her TeamSite password.
E. A TeamSite administrator must change the password for a TeamSite user.
Answer: D

4. Which one of the following task types is used to run non-interactive automated process steps?
A. CGI
B. User
C. Group
D. External
E. Dummy
Answer: D

5. A TeamSite FormsPublisher presentation template on which you are working will not virtualize correctly during preview. All the image links are broken and all the image SRC attributes are relative to the desired output location for the data type. You have set the directory dir-regex correctly to only allow output to that location. When you generate a file, virtualization works correctly. Many other files in the Web site besides this template use the same image files.
Based on the scenario above, how do you make the preview virtualize correctly with minimum impact on the Web site?
A. Change all the links to the image files to absolute paths in all files in the Web site.
B. Change the directory dir-regex of the data-type to the root of the workarea.
C. Set the preview-dir attribute of the <template> element’s <branch> subelement to the directory path where the file should be based for the relative image SRC paths to work correctly.
D. In the presentation template, use the <iw_preview> tag to set the preview path to the directory path where the file should be based for the relative image SRC paths to work correctly.
E. Copy the image files into the data-type’s folder under /templatedata/ and add a proxy remap to redirect all image requests to the data-type’s directory.
Answer: C

6. Where can you find TeamSite release notes?
A. Interwoven’s documentation page (http://www.interwoven.com/documentation/)
B. In a file on the TeamSite CD-ROM
C. Inside the installation package (tarball or InstallShield package)
D. Interwoven does not produce product release notes.
E. Interwoven’s support site (http://support.interwoven.com/)
Answer: E

7. On a Windows 2000 Server, no matter what you do, the "everyone" account always has full control access to all TeamSite content. It is being automatically applied to all new content and areas, and you are unable to remove it. Which one of the following conditions causes the above situation?
A. The TSIMP_hostname account is missing from the TeamSite Web Preview group.
B. There is no webserver_group declared in iw.cfg.
C. The iwserver service is running in debug mode.
D. There is no group named TeamSite Web Preview defined on the TeamSite server.
E. There is no webpreview_group declared in iw.cfg.
Answer: B

8. For an initial installation of TeamSite, the client is using a Netscape Web server for the TeamSite Web server. GUI administration for the Netscape Web server is not available. Which one of the following files is modified to add document directories to the Netscape Web server in the above scenario?
A. obj.conf
B. httpd.conf
C. access.conf
D. srm.conf
E. iw.cfg
Answer: A

9. A customer wants to make sure it can do an emergency roll back of its production Web site if it is attacked by hackers. The customer wants to use OpenDeploy to re-deploy directly from TeamSite to perform the emergency rollback. It does not want to have to re-create or re-build any assets as part of this type of emergency rollback. The emergency rollback deployment must deploy exactly the same assets that were on the Web server before the attack.
To insure the above requirement is satisfied, which one of the following types of assets must be versioned in TeamSite?
A. Compressed asset
B. Deployed asset
C. content store asset
D. Image asset
E. Derived asset
Answer: B

10. You try to run a deployment from the TeamSite server to a target Web server and OpenDeploy is unable to connect. Nothing appears in the target Web server’s OpenDeploy log; however, you are able to deploy to a server on the same subnet as the TeamSite server.
What is the cause of the problem described above?
A. A valid encryption key file has not been specified.
B. The OpenDeploy port is blocked at the firewall.
C. The target Web server is running a different operating system than the TeamSite server.
D. TeamSite is not installed on the target Web server.
E. The target Web server is running a different version of OpenDeploy than the TeamSite server.
Answer: B

11. Which of the following can you accomplish with application_custom.xml?
A. Indicate a corporate logo to display in ContentCenter Standard.
B. Remove the tagging step from the ContentCenter Standard wizards.
C. Remove "Tag" links from ContentCenter Standard.
D. Remove ContentCenter Professional from the dropdown on the login page.
E. Change the display name for the "Workflow" tab in ContentCenter Professional.
Answer: B

12. You just installed TeamSite on a Windows 2000 server. When rebooting, the tspostreboot.pl script executes and you receive a message that states that TeamSite was successfully installed; however, you are unable to get the initial login screen at http://localhost/iw.
What is the cause of the problem described above?
A. You are not authorized to use TeamSite.
B. The iwwebd port was not set correctly during installation.
C. The TeamSite users did not install certificates in their browsers.
D. You did not call Interwoven and get a client license key before proceeding.
E. You do not have a secure channel between the TeamSite server and your workstation.
Answer: B

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