Archive for the ‘EMC’ Category

Jun
28

e20-860 Exam
EMC NAS Implementation Engineer Expert Exam
Exam Number/Code : e20-860
Exam Name : EMC NAS Implementation Engineer Expert Exam
Questions and Answers : 155 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-06-28
Price: $ 65.00

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Jun
28

e20-540 Exam
networked storage-nas specialist exam
Exam Number/Code : e20-540
Exam Name : networked storage-nas specialist exam
Questions and Answers : 136 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-06-28
Price: $ 65.00

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Jun
28

e20-340 Exam
clariion solutiongs implementation
Exam Number/Code : e20-340
Exam Name : clariion solutiongs implementation
Questions and Answers : 104 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-06-28
Price: $ 65.00

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Jun
26

e20-860 Exam
EMC NAS Implementation Engineer Expert Exam
Exam Number/Code : e20-860
Exam Name : EMC NAS Implementation Engineer Expert Exam
Questions and Answers : 155 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-05-01
Price: $ 98.00

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Jun
26

e20-540 Exam
networked storage-nas specialist exam
Exam Number/Code : e20-540
Exam Name : networked storage-nas specialist exam
Questions and Answers : 136 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-06-26
Price: $ 98.00

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Jun
02

E20-361 Exam
Network Attached Storage (NAS) Implementation Exam
Exam Number/Code : E20-361
Exam Name : Network Attached Storage (NAS) Implementation Exam
Questions and Answers : 114 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-06-02
Price:$ 98.00

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Feb
03

CLARiiON Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist
Exam Number/Code : E20-611
Exam Name : CLARiiON Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist
E20-611 Questions and Answers : 142 Q&As
E20-611 Update Time: 2009-11-14
E20-611 Price: $ 130.00

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Relate exams: 70-299 exam and 70-301 exam and 70-401 exam and 70-431 exam

Feb
03

Backup & Recovery Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators
Exam Number/Code : e20-597
Exam Name : Backup & Recovery Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators
Questions and Answers : 260 Q&As
e20-597 Update Time: 2010-02-04
e20-597 Price: $ 130.00

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Relate exams: 70-294 exam and 70-296 exam and 70-297 exam and 70-298 exam

Feb
03

clariion solutiongs implementation
Exam Number/Code : e20-340
Exam Name : clariion solutiongs implementation
Questions and Answers : 104 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-02-04
Price: $ 130.00

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Topics likely to be present on the EMC E20-340 exam include:
* CLARiiON CX & CX3 Series arrays
* CLARiiON Basic Management
* CLARiiON Host Integration and Implementation
* Connectrix B, MDS and M Series Switches

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Relate exams: 70-290 exam and 70-291 exam and 70-292 exam and 70-293 exam

Jan
20

e20-322 Exam
Technology Architect Solutions Design
* Exam Number/Code : e20-322
* Exam Name : Technology Architect Solutions Design
* Questions and Answers : 232 Q&As
* Update Time: 2010-1-20
* Price: $ 65.00

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Related exam:132-S-710.2exam and 1z0-031exam and 1Z0-040exam and 1z0-516exam

Jan
16

E22-250 Exam
Network Managment- Smarts Adminstration
* Exam Number/Code : E22-250
* Exam Name : Network Managment- Smarts Adminstration
* Questions and Answers : 166 Q&As
* Price: $ 65.00

EMC certification exam
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Related exams:a00-201 exam and A01-250 exam and 050-718 exam and 70-503 exam

Jan
16

e20-512 Exam
business continuity specialist exam for storage admins
* Exam Number/Code : e20-512
* Exam Name : business continuity specialist exam for storage admins
* Questions and Answers : 240 Q&As
* Price: $ 65.00

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Related exams:510-010 exam and 4h0-028 exam and 920-107 exam and 642-681 exam

Jan
14

E20-405 Exam
EMC Content Management Server Programming(CMSP)
* Exam Number/Code : E20-405
* Exam Name : EMC Content Management Server Programming(CMSP)
* Questions and Answers : 229 Q&As
* Update Time: 2009-11-03
* Price: $ 65.00

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Related exam: PW0-100

Jan
12

e20-040 Exam
emc technology foundations
* Exam Number/Code : e20-040
* Exam Name : emc technology foundations
* Questions and Answers : 237 Q&As
* Update Time: 2010-01-12

EMC e20-040 Exam Information
2007 EMC Technology Foundations Exam
Number of Questions: 60
Test Duration: 90 minutes
e20-040 exam requires the successful candidate to be able to describe the architecture, theory of operations, features and technical value of EMC’s offering; including Symmetrix and CLARiiON storage platform hardware Technology Foundations and software; SAN, NAS and CAS hardware and software; storage resource management, EMC’s virtualization products, business continuity, remote replication, backup and recovery software.

Topics likely to be present on EMC e20-040 Exam include
• CLARiiON, SnapView, MirrorView Foundations
• Symmetrix, TimeFinder, SRDF, Connectrix, PowerPath Foundations
• Celerra, Centera
EMC Storage Virtualization Foundations
• EMC Backup Technologies Foundations
• EMC ControlCenter Foundations

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Related Certifications: Technology Foundations

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Nov
01

PassQuick e20-840 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: e20-840

Exam Name: Storage Management Expert Exam for Technology Architects

VUE Code: e20-840

vendor:EMC

Exam Language(s): English

Certification: Technology Foundations practice test

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Exam : EMC E20-840
Title : Storage Management Expert Exam for Technology Architects

1. A customer wants to do provisioning as well as capacity and performance reporting in an open systems SAN environment. The customer has HDS and EMC storage. Which product sets are used to design a solution?
A. Planning and Provisioning Package
B. Symmetrix Package, Monitoring and Reporting Package
C. Symmetrix Manager, SAN Manager, Performance Manager, StorageScope
D. Symmetrix Manager, SAN Manager, HDS Manager, Performance Manager, StorageScope
Answer: C

2. All the Celerras in a Data Center are currently monitored via ControlCenter. The customer has expressed a concern that some Celerra events seen in Celerra Manager are displayed in ControlCenter while some are not displayed in ControlCenter even though all the ControlCenter Celerra Alerts are enabled.
Which solution would you recommend after you have identified the specific events which do not appear in ControlCenter?
A. Setup the Control Station and the ControlCenter Server as SNMP Trap destinations
B. Configure the Celerra Control Station to generate an SNMP trap when the events occur
C. Modify the Celerra MIB to include the trap definitions for these events and compile it on the ControlCenter Server and the Control Station
D. Modify the Celerra MIB to include the trap definitions for these events on the Control Station and setup the Control Station as an SNMP trap destination
Answer: B

3. You are editing a StorageScope Layout Report for information and need to organize the information by the customer’s business units and projects. Each business unit has measurable projects. The customer’s business units have exclusive access to their respective arrays. Projects have exclusive use of servers.
Which approach will allow the StorageScope layouts to produce reporting on storage utilization by business units and projects?
A. Modify the Arrays Basic Layout to include filtering on the Groups field
B. Create Groups via the Console that represent the Projects and then copy and paste the appropriate arrays to each group
C. Create Groups via the Console that represent the Business Units and then copy and paste the appropriate arrays to each group
D. Create Hierarchical Groups via the Console that represent the Business Units and Projects and then copy and paste the appropriate hosts to each group
Answer: D

4. A customer has Cisco MDS series switches, and is using ControlCenter in their environment. To facilitate support, he would like the switches to dial-home to EMC in the event of an error. What is mandatory to ensure that this feature works properly?
A. Dedicated 56Kb modem, externally connected to each MDS switch
B. Dedicated phone connected to the telephone port of the service processor
C. OnAlert/ConnectEMC configured to enable dial-home capabilities via ControlCenter
D. Cisco MDS do not have dial-home capabilities. These switches only support email home notification
Answer: C

5. A customer is managing 50 CLARiiON CX600s and 10 DMX1000Ps via ControlCenter. They would like to be alerted when any Customer Replaceable Unit on the CX600s fail. The alert must be received in ControlCenter. Which solution would you recommend?
A. Setup the CLARiiON Agent host as an SNMP trap designation on all the CX600s
B. Ensure that the ControlCenter "Storage Array Fault" alert is enabled for the CLARiiON Agent
C. Setup Navisphere Event Monitor in a Distributed deployment to monitor all Critical Array Faults for all CX600s
D. Setup Navisphere Event Monitor in a Centralized deployment to monitor all Critical Array Faults for all CX600s
Answer: B

6. The customer has an environment consisting of:
10 Symmetrix Arrays
20 CLARiiON Arrays
4 Cisco Switches
125 Open systems Hosts
ControlCenter Master and Host Agents are deployed to all 125 open system hosts.
ControlCenter StorageScope File Level Reporter (FLR) Agents are deployed to all 125 open systems hosts.
Which tools should be used to generate a report showing the correlation of disk utilization to directory utilization?
A. Custom StorageScope Layout with filtering
B. Excel spreadsheet with the StorageScope FLR API
C. Custom report program using the StorageScope API and the StorageScope FLR API
D. Basic StorageScope Layout with the StorageScope API and the StorageScope FLR API
Answer: C

7. While considering the type and protection of the storage for the ControlCenter database, your customer is looking for a recommendation. Which option is the recommended best practice for database storage?
A. Use RAID-1 for the ControlCenter database
B. Use RAID-5 for the ControlCenter database
C. Use software based mirroring for the ControlCenter database
D. Due to the daily database exports unprotected disk is recommended
Answer: A

8. A customer is using BMC Patrol Enterprise Manager as their alert notification application and they want to integrate ControlCenter into the framework. Some of the equipment in the environment supports SNMP V2, which is the customer’s preference. This equipment is currently being monitored by ControlCenter, but alerts are being forwarded by direct SNMP traps. What would cause you to continue to send direct SNMP traps to BMC PEM for this equipment?
A. Not all ControlCenter alerts can be forwarded by the Gateway Agent
B. Gateway Agent can only be installed on a Windows server
C. ControlCenter Integration Gateway Agent supports only SNMP V1 traps
D. Firewall between the ControlCenter managed objects and the ControlCenter server
Answer: C

9. Your customer would like to integrate their Symmetrix and CLARiiON storage arrays into ControlCenter. They want to test the functions of the Storage Management Initiative Standards. What is the recommended installation to discover the arrays?
A. Solution Enabler CIMOM Provider and the SMI-S Agent
B. Storage Agent for Symmetrix and CLARiiON on an Agent Host
C. SMI-S Agent and Solution Enabler from the Console on an Agent Host
D. Storage Agent for Symmetrix, SDM Agent and Storage Agent for CLARiiON
Answer: A

10. A Customer wants ControlCenter to monitor the percent of free space on all the Logical Volumes on his Windows servers. The monitoring frequency should be 15 min. A Critical alert should trigger only if the drive has been at 70% full for at least one hour. A Fatal alert should trigger at 90% full as soon as possible. What solution would you suggest?
A. One alert definition with two Management Policies
B. One alert definition with appropriate evaluation conditions
C. One alert definition with a Management Policy that will meet the customer requirement
D. Two alert definitions: One monitoring for the Critical condition and the other for the Fatal Condition
Answer: B

11. Your customer wants to add custom defined fields to the ControlCenter database for Asset tracking. How are these fields defined?
A. Via an ODBC connection to the database
B. XML import into the ControlCenter Repository
C. Directly into the console by right clicking the object
D. Use the Administration section on the StorageScope interface
Answer: B

12. Your customer just purchased ControlCenter and installed Symmetrix Manager and the StorageScope licenses. They say they are missing the capability to assign devices to their hosts. What do you recommend?
A. Purchase the SAN Manager license
B. Open a Software Case, this must function
C. Purchase the Storage Management license
D. Purchase the Automated Resource Manager license
Answer: A

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Oct
31

 
 
Exam : EMC E20-820
Title : CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects

1. The ET Tool validates which component of a Business Continuance design?
A. Cache utilization
B. Data change activity
C. Link latency
D. SP utilization
Answer: B

2. Which tool will allow you to best determine a Windows server’s performance?
A. diskpart
B. navseccli
C. perfmon
D. sar
Answer: C

3. Which EMC products require a post-sales solution review by the EMC Solutions Validation Center (SVC)?
A. EDL Replication, Open Replicator, and EmailXtender
B. EDL Replication, SRDF/A, and RepliStor
C. SRDF/A, Open Migrator, and MirrorView/A
D. SRDF/A, RecoverPoint, and MirrorView/A
Answer: D

4. You are designing a CLARiiON disaster recovery environment for your customer. You want to accurately model and calculate the following based on the customer’s input data and/or EMC Performance Data:
Bandwidth requirements (physical links)
Performance impacts at the logical volume level
Recovery point objectives
Which tool would best help you to accomplish this?
A. ET Tool
B. LOR Tool
C. Navisphere Analyzer
D. NSD
Answer: A

5. There are several decisions that need to be made when designing a Business Continuity Solution. What is one of the decision requirements for a good solution?
A. All decisions should be calculated and derived from customer data
B. Create specific device lists for modeling tools
C. Industry standards and algorithms should be closely adhered to
D. Provide customer with a standardized approach to Business Continuity
Answer: A

6. Your customer has come to you with concerns. They have increased their replication bandwidth from OC-3 to OC-12 and wonder what will happen to their recovery point objectives. What would your response be?
A. RPO will compensate and balance RTO
B. RPO will decrease
C. RPO will increase
D. Time objective will remain consistent
Answer: B

7. Which tool will let you best determine disk utilization of a UNIX server?
A. diskpar
B. iostat
C. navcli
D. netstat
Answer: B

8. What are the requirements that must be met when collecting data that will be used as input for the ET Tool in an environment that is evaluating for MirrorView/A?
A. I/O to the LUNs should be stopped until the collecting of the data has started.
B. The update cycle must be an integer multiple of the collection interval.
C. The update cycle should be set for a 10-minute interval at maximum.
D. The update cycle should be set for a five-minute interval at maximum.
Answer: B

PassQuick e20-820 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: e20-820

Exam Name: CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects

VUE Code: e20-820

vendor:EMC

Exam Language(s): English

Certification: Technology Foundations practice test

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Oct
29

PassQuick e22-106 Practice Exams Description

Exam Number/Code: e22-106

Exam Name: emc legato cert.aam 5 x administrator

VUE Code: e22-106

vendor:EMC

Exam Language(s): English

Certification: Legato Cert practice test

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Exam : EMC E22-106
Title : Emc Legato Cert AAM 5 x Administrator

1. Which two statements are true about the AAM isolation detection feature? (Choose two.)
A.All agents are responsible for isolation detection.
B.Only primary agents are responsible for isolation detection.
C.If, within half of the minimum detection time, no heartbeats are received, a ping is sent to each isolation address.
D.If, within half of the minimum detection time, no heartbeats are received, a ping is sent across the verification line.
Answer: AC

2. When is it appropriate to configure node-specific isolation detection IP addresses instead of domain-specific isolation detection IP addresses?
A.when isolation detection IP addresses are common to all nodes
B.when a configuration has only one isolation detection IP address
C.when isolation detection IP addresses are not common to all nodes
D.when a configuration has five or more isolation detection IP addresses
Answer: C

3. An administrator creates five Resource Groups in AAM. What is the number of ftPerl processes running by default?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.5
Answer: C

4. Which statement is true when creating a new service resource?
A.The default response test is used to query the service status.
B.AAM discovers all services on all nodes when selecting the service to run.
C.AAM prevents the target node list from containing nodes on which the service is not installed.
D.The account information set must match the account for the service configuration in the service Control Manager applet.
Answer: B

5. Which two networking statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A.Routing is the same on all operating systems.
B.Routing is the same on UNIX operating systems.
C.Not all switches will route multicast traffic by default.
D.To observe the routing table on a UNIX or Windows server, you should use the netstat -nr command.
Answer: CD

6. Which statement describes the functionality of an AAM Sensor?
A.A Sensor returns the value of the data point to a trigger.
B.A Sensor fires an associated rule when the value of the data point changes.
C.A Sensor fires an associated trigger when the value of the data point changes.
D.A Sensor senses changes in the value of a data point and submits those changes to its associated rule.
Answer: A

7. Which is a valid IP address for private non-routed network use?
A.37.16.256.4
B.117.24.103.40
C.127.0.0.1
D.192.168.7.69
Answer: D

8. Which two are clustering topologies? (Choose two.)
A.ring
B.star
C.one to one
D.one to none
E.many to one
Answer: CE

9. A three-node domain is configured with each of the nodes connected to two networks. A network cable attached to node A’s Network Interface Card (NIC) is accidentally detached. Later that evening, the maintenance crew unplugs power to the hub on node A’s remaining working network.
Which statement is true?
A.The node is considered isolated.
B.Nodes B and C will report node A as shut down.
C.The resources running on node A are taken offline.
D.When the network connection is re-established, node A will determine that its Resource Group objects have changed to a failed state.
Answer: A

10. Which three options should you consider when performing a failover in a WAN environment? (Choose three.)
A.isolation detection
B.transfer of host name
C.location of DNS servers
D.transfer of IP addresses
E.secondary agents on both sides of the network
Answer: ACD

11. Which two tasks can occur on a secondary agent? (Choose two.)
A.execute rules
B.restart the backbone
C.host a Resource Group
D.monitor the AAM domain
E.maintain a copy of the database
Answer: CD

12. What are three elements of a Resource Group? (Choose three.)
A.rules
B.delays
C.sensors
D.node proxies
E.Utility Processes
F.event messages
Answer: BEF

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